Hey guys, sorry if this is a silly question.
Currently using policy=none, 99.98% of my emails are passing DMARC validation, however, filtering by “show non-compliant email” shows thousands of reports. The vast majority, over 99%, are in the Forwarders tab.
In the Forwarders tab, there are emails being forwarded by Google on *.google.com, for example. However, almost all the rows have the column “override comment: arc=pass”.
Which brings me to my questions:
- What I understand from this is that although DMARC has failed, it was overridden because “arc=pass”, is that correct?
- Can I assume that if I had set my DMARC policy to reject, these emails would have been delivered successfully?
Something similar is happening for Microsoft 365, on *.outlook.com. There is, however, no “override comment” column, only “override reason: none”.
Now, I don’t understand whether:
1) the DMARC failure has been overridden because my policy is set to none, and if it were set to quarantine/reject the delivery would have reached spam/failed
2) there has been no overrides whatsoever and my emails wouldn’t have been delivered if I had a policy other than “none”.
This is all that is keeping me from setting my policy to quarantine/reject, since the domain that show up in the Forwarder tab belong to customers of high importance to the company I work in.
Thanks in advance for the time and help